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Old Posted Dec 19, 2018, 5:25 AM
Shawn Shawn is offline
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Originally Posted by sopas ej View Post
I guess you're using the European model of the way human settlement occurred, and somehow it only began in the late Medieval period...
And the Japanese model, and the Korean model, and largely the Chinese model, and the Khmer model, the Vietnamese model, the pre-Dutch Indonesian model...
“You are not entitled to your opinion. You are entitled to your informed opinion. No one is entitled to be ignorant.”
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Old Posted Dec 19, 2018, 1:41 PM
Leveled Leveled is offline
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Originally Posted by Jonesy55 View Post
Giving a 50 year old ex coal miner welfare is more efficient in cities how?
Economies of scale. Much easier and cheaper to provide social services to concentrated groups than people spread out over thousands of square miles.
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Old Posted Dec 19, 2018, 4:43 PM
Obadno Obadno is offline
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Originally Posted by Leveled View Post
More farming = more welfare.
Not really its just geography, Flat arrable land produces mroe wealthy and stronger societies than mountainous rural areas.

Being located on a navigable river or natural port = more wealthy

Mountainous areas lik the ozarks and Apalachia take enourmouse amounts of excess capitol to build the infrastruture and make them productive. Thats why all major powers throughout history have exsisted in farming areas or as ports with strong naval power/trade

Last edited by Obadno; Dec 19, 2018 at 4:55 PM.
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Old Posted Dec 20, 2018, 6:45 PM
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sopas ej sopas ej is offline
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Originally Posted by eschaton View Post
My understanding from reading Chinese history is it worked under much the same pattern.
You said "human settlement." Human settlement didn't immediately start with feudalism. Feudalism wasn't universal across the globe, and agricultural societies weren't all feudal.

Human settlement occurred even among hunter/gatherer societies.

Here, this is a good book to read:

I'm just a soul whose intentions are good.
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