Quote:
Originally Posted by Docere
I think this is basically correct. Hindus dominate the Indian-American population.
There are some exceptions of course, like the Sikhs in the interior of California and Indo-Guyanese in NYC.
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So I'm guessing Canada's early Sikh community (though really small, say in the thousands in the early 1900s) persisted long enough and got "critical mass" to allow family reunification (or perhaps also influenced the acceptance of some of the refugees fleeing communal violence in the Punjab in the 80s) by the time of liberalization of immigration policy, that did not happen for the US (where the California interior Sikhs have little connection to the later Silicon Valley wave of immigrants).
The points system favouring skill vs. family reunification would have already been in place in the 70s, 80s and 90s yet Sikhs continued to immigrate disproportionately relative to non-Sikhs from India in Canada.
I still wonder how Mississauga, Brampton or the western GTA still came to be heavily Sikh/Punjabi even if there's not a connection to the BC Sikh community (the time gap is too long, since the GTA only got south Asians in large numbers by the 70s). After all, if the GTA's Sikh community is from the 1970s, 80s and 90s, one would suspect that family reunification would be less important as they are in say BC, as opposed to skill selection (but the skills selected for, such as English speaking, having degrees etc. would not be expected to favour Sikh Indians over non-Sikh Indians, and immigrants moving to Toronto might be more skills-selected seeing how it's the largest city, or well was becoming the largest city, then). And after all, in the US, the California Sikh presence never led to say, a Sikh presence further east (in say, Chicago or NYC), so is there any reason to suspect the BC Sikh presence was responsible for influencing the western GTA in having a high Sikh immigrant population?